GATE 2017

1. The Pritzker Architecture prize for the year 2016 has been awarded to

2. As per CPWD Handbook on Barrier Free and Accessibility, 2014 Government of India,
the minimum length of a straight ramp in meter to raise a wheelchair to the plinth level of
600 mm is _________

3. Tuscan and Composite Orders are associated with

4. A pointed arch having two centres and radii greater than the span is known as

5. The concepts of ‘serial vision’, ‘punctuation’ and ‘closure’ were proposed by

6. In one litre of paint, volume of solid pigment and volume of non-volatile binder are 400 cc
and 600 cc respectively. The Pigment Volume Concentration number of the paint is____________

7. ‘Cold joint’ refers to the

8. Slenderness ratio of a column is represented as:

9. Liquidated damage refers to the

10. Which of the following process is NOT used for corrosion resistance of cast iron?

11. Data on ‘households with one or more married couples sharing room with a person aged
12 years or more’, is used for computing

12. Excellence in Design for Greater Efficiency (EDGE) programme DOES NOT focus on

13. Select the right option representing strategic components arranged in ascending order
of specified minimum area under Smart City Mission of Government of India.

14. The grade-separated interchange suitable for 3-legged intersection is:

15. The design element provided to ensure
safety of a vehicle travelling at a prescribed design speed along the curved segment of
a highway is

16. Which of the following processes is NOT adopted in solid waste management?

17. The principle of Eminent Domain is the power to

18. In which of the following models does the private partner own the revenue as well as the
risk associated with the project for a limited period of time ?

19. In a multi-storied building, the type
of plumbing system suitable for
reusing the sullage for nonpotable use is

20. The unit for measuring sound absorption in a room is

21. In Geographic Information System, DEM represents information on

22. Minimum point required for GRIHA certification is

23. ArchiCAD, Auto Desk Revit, Digital Project Designer (CATIA) and Vector Works
Architect are examples of

24. The CARTOSAT 2C satellite recently launched by ISRO

25. Which of the following trees has a columnar form?

26. Match the architectural movements in Group- I with their proponents in Group- II
Group –I Group- II
P. Deconstruction 1. Joseph Paxton
Q. Historicism 2. Kenzo Tange
R. Metabolism 3. Walter Gropius
S. Art Nouveau 4. Victor Horta
5. Frank O. Gehry

27. Associate the historic buildings in Group- I with their predominant materials in GroupII
Group –I Group- II
(P) Lingaraj Temple, Bhubaneshwar, India 1. Red sandstone
(Q) Victoria Memorial, Kolkata, India 2. Timber
(R) Padmanabhapuram Palace, Thuckalay, India 3. Terracotta tiles
(S) Humayun’s Tomb, Delhi, India 4. Sandstone and laterite
5. Marble

28. Match the terminologies in Group- I with their description in Group- II
Group –I Group- II
(P) Prunning 1. Cutting of trees
(Q) Felling 2. Removing broken branches from trees for better growth
(R) Hoeing 3. Maintaining moisture content in soil by a protective layer
(S) Mulching 4. Indiscrimate cutting of branches to reduce all size of a tree
5. Loosening the ground to remove weeds

29. A proposed housing will have HIG, MIG and LIG units on a site measuring 60,750 sq.m.
The buildable area of each category of units with respect to total buildable area will be
30%, 50% and 20% respectively. The maximum allowed FAR is 2.5, ground coverage
45% and height 15m. The maximum available buildable area in sq.m of HIG units,
considering a floor height of 3m for all categories will be______________.

30. In 2011, the population of a town was 5,00,000 and the number of housing units were
1,00,000. Calculate the additional number of dwelling units (DU) required by 2031 so
that there is no housing shortage. The assumptions are
i. 5% decadal increase in population
ii New DU to be completed by 2021 is 10,000
iii Number of DU which will become non habitable by 2031 is 5,000
iv Average household size is 4.5

31. Match the classical urban planning theories in Group- I with their proponents in
Group- II
Group –I Group- II
(P) Concentric Zone Model 1. Berry and Horton
(Q) Sector Model 2. Homer Hoyt
(R) Multiple Nuclei Model 3. Ernest Burgess
(S) Factorial Ecology 4. Shevky and Bell
5. Harris and Ulmann

32. Match the distinguished housing projects in Group- I with their architects in Group- II
Group –I Group- II
(P) Nagakin Capsule Tower, Tokyo, Japan 1. Walter Gropius
(Q) Tara Apartments, New Delhi, India 2. Moshe Safdie
(R) Habitat 67, Montreal, Canada 3. Ralph Erskine
(S) Byker Wall, New Castle, England 4. Charles Correa
5. Kisho Kurokawa

33. Match the development schemes by Government of India in Group- I with their
objectives in Group- II
Group –I Group- II
(P) PMAY 1. Housing for All
(Q) AMRUT 2. Rural cluster development
(R) NruM 3. Heritage city development
(S) HRIDAY 4. Urban mobility improvement
5. Urban rejuvenation

34. Match the international events in Group- I with their directives in Group- II
Group –I Group- II
(P) Earth Summit, Rio de Janerio, 1992 1. Kyoto Protocol
(Q) UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, New York, 1992 2. Agenda 21
(R) UN Sustainable Development Summit, New York, 2015 3. Heritage
Conservation
(S) Habitat II, Instanbul, 1996 4. Agenda 2030
5. Housing for All

35. Match the planning techniques in Group- I with their salient features in Group- II
Group –I Group- II
(P) Land Pooling 1. Assigning specific task on a short time horizon
(Q) Action Plan 2. Assembling privately owned land parcels for development
(R) Land sharing 3. Agreement for reallocation of land between occupiers and owners
(S) Transfer of Development Rights4. Assigning specific task on a long term horizon
5. Incentive based voluntary shifting of FAR of a plot to another plot

36. For a symmetrical two dimensional truss as shown in the figure, vertical force in kN
acting on the member PQ is ____________

37. Value of bending moment in kN-m at point C for a beam as shown in the figure is____________-

38. Fee of contractor for a project has the following provisions
Basic fee = 15 % of actual cost of work incurred
Bonus = 20% of savings from estimated cost of work
Penalty = 20 % of cost overrun
If the estimated cost of the project is Rs 60,000, and the actual cost is Rs 70,000, the
total fee of contractor in Rupees is _____________

39. A site has a unidirectional slope of 30° with horizontal along its longer side. The
projected dimensions of the site on the horizontal plane measures 30 m × 40 m. Using
cut and fill method the site has to be levelled parallel to the horizontal plane. The
minimum amount of earth to be excavated in cubic metre is ___________

40. The optimistic, most likely and pessimistic time for developing a new product are 12
months, 15 months and 17 months respectively. Calculate the expected time in
months.

41. A circular plate inclined at an angle θ with horizontal plate generates an ellipse as top
view with major axis and minor axis of 5 cm and 2.5 cm respectively. The value of θ in
degrees is _______________

42. Calculate the volume of cement in cubic metre required for making 10 cubic metre of
M20 grade Plain Cement Concrete work, assuming the ratio of dry concrete mix to wet
concrete mix as 1.52.

43. One acre of agricultural land has been given on a lease till perpetuity at an annual rent
of Rs 10,000 to be paid at the end of each year. Net Present Value of the land parcel in
Rupees assuming a discount rate of 5% per annum is _____________________

44. In year 2001, a district with 4,000 manufacturing jobs had a 10% share of total
manufacturing jobs within the state. In year 2011, the state recorded 15 % drop in
manufacturing jobs whereas, the share of the district in total manufacturing jobs within
the state increased to 15%. Additional manufacturing jobs created in the district
between year 2001 and 2011 is ___________

45. Match the parameters in Group- I with their units in Group- II
Group –I Group- II
(P) Traffic flow 1. Metre
(Q) Traffic Density 2. Cycle/second
(R) Right of Way 3. Seconds
(S) Traffic Signal cycle length 4. Vehicle/km
5. PCU/hr

46. Match the planning tasks in Group- I with their tools of analysis in Group- II
Group –I Group- II
(P) Population Projection 1. Input- Output Analysis
(Q) Regional resource allocation 2. Hardy Cross Method
(R) Trip distribution 3. Cohort Analysis
(S) Design of water distribution network 4. Gravity Model
5. Moving Observer method

47. Match the land use classes in Group- I with their use zones in Group- II
Group –I Group- II
(P) Transportation 1. Sports complex
(Q) Commercial 2. Heritage and Conservation areas
(R) Public and Semi –Public 3. Burial ground
(S) Recreational 4. BRT Corridor
5. Service sector

48. Match the structural systems in Group- I with the buildings in Group- II
Group –I Group- II
(P) Folded plates 1. Kurilpa Bridge, Brisbane
(Q) Shell 2. Eden Project, Cornwall
(R) Tensegrity 3. Riverside Museum, Glasgow
(S) Pneumatic 4. MIT Auditorium, Boston
5. 30, St. Mary Axe, London

49. As per National Building Code of India, 2005, the maximum number of occupants per
unit exit width of a doorway is 60, where unit width is 500 mm. The maximum
permissible occupants in a theatre having four number of 2.2 m wide doors will be
______________

50. Match the instruments in Group- I with the corresponding tests in Group- II
Group –I Group- II
(P) Pycnometer 1. Initial and final setting time
(Q) Brinell’s Apparatus 2. Abrasion test
(R) Los Angeles Apparatus 3. Surface hardness test
(S) Vicat’s Apparatus 4. Slump test
5. Apparent Specific gravity

51. Water flows through a constricted pipe whose diameter at the constricted end is half of
the non-constricted end. Velocity of water at the non-constricted end is 2 m/s. Velocity
of water in m/s at the constricted end using the principle of continuity of flow is
_______________

52. A drainage basin of 180 hectares comprise 40 % wooded area, 45 % grassed area and
15 % paved area. Run off coefficients for wooded, grassland and paved areas are
0.01, 0.2 and 0.95 respectively. The composite runoff coefficient for the drainage basin
is_______________

53. A fluorescent light source consumes 40 W electric power and has a luminous efficacy of
40 lm/W. Illumination in lux at a distance of 3 m from this light source is ____________

54. A room measures 3 m (width) × 4 m (length) × 3 m (height). The outdoor temperature is
36 °C. The volumetric specific heat of air is 1300 J/cu.m.degC. The ventilation heat
flow rate in Watts required to attain an internal room temperature of 26°C with 3 air
changes per hour is________________

55. Match the equipment in Group- I with their applications in Group- II
Group –I Group- II
(P) PIR 1. Air conditioning
(Q) FCU 2. Lighting
(R) OLED 3. Power generation
(S) BIPV 4. Motion detection
5. Daylight sensing

56. He was one of my best __________ and I felt his loss ________________

57. As the two speakers became increasingly agitated, the debate became
________________

58. A right angled cone (with base radius 5 cm and height 12 cm) as shown in the figure
below, is rolled on the ground keeping the point P fixed until the point Q (at the base of
the cone, as shown) touches the ground again

59. In a company with 100 employees, 45 earn Rs 20,000 per month, 25 earn Rs 30,000,
20 earn Rs 40000, 8 earn Rs 60,000 and 2 earn Rs 1,50,000. The median of the
salaries is

60. P, Q and R talk about S’s car collection. . P states thst S has at least 3 cars. Q believes
that S has less than 3 cars. R indicates that to his knowledge, S has at least one car.
Only one of P, Q and R is right. The number of cars owned by S is

61. “Here throughout the early 1820s, Stuart continued to fight his losing battle to allow his
sepoys to wear their caste- marks and their own choice of facial hair on parade, being
again reprimanded by the commander –in – chief. His retort that ‘ A stronger instance
than this of European prejudice with relation to this country has never come under my
observations’ had no effect on his superiors.”
According to this paragraph, which of the statements below is most accurate ?

62. What is the sum of the missing digits in the substration problem below ?

63. Let S
1 be the plane figure consisting of the points (x,y) given by the inequalities ǀx-1ǀ ≤ 2
and ǀy+2ǀ ≤ 3. Let S2 be the plane figure given by inequalities x-y ≥ -2, y ≥ 1 and x ≤ 3.
Let S be the union of S
1 and S2. He area of S is

64. Two very famous sportsmen Mark and Steve happened to be brothers, and played for
country K. Mark teased James, an opponebt from country E, “here is no way you are
good enough to play for our country. “James replied, “ Maybe not, but at least I am the
best player in my own family.”
Which one of the following can be inferred from this conversation ?

65. The growth of bacteria (lactobacillus)
in milk leads to curd formation. A minimum bacterial population density of 0.8 (in
suitable units) is needed to form curd. In the graph below, the population density of
lactobacillus in 1 litre of milk is plotted as a function of time, at two different
temperatures, 25 °C and 37 °C .
Consider the following statements based on the data shown above:
i The growth in bacterial population stops earlier at 37 °C as compared to 25 °C
iiThe time taken for curd formation at 25 °C is twice the time taken at 37 °C
Which one of the following options is correct ?