GATE 2018

1. “When she fell down the _______ she received many _______ but little help.”
The words that best fill the blank in the above sentence are

stairs, stares

stairs, stairs

stares, stairs

stares, stares

2. “In spite of being warned repeatedly he failed to correct his _________ behaviour.”
The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is

rational

reasonable

errant

good

3. For 0 ≤ ?? ≤ 2 ?? , sin ?? and cos ?? are both decreasing functions in the interval
________

(0, ?? 2 )

( ?? 2 , ?? )

( ?? , 3 ?? 2 )

( 3 ?? 2 , 2 ?? )

4. The area of an equilateral triangle is √3. What is the perimeter of the triangle?

5. Arrange the following three-dimensional objects in the descending order of their volumes:
(i) A cuboid with dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm
(ii) A cube of side 8 cm
(iii) A cylinder with base radius 7 cm and height 7 cm
(iv) A sphere of radius 7 cm

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

(iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

6. An automobile travels from city A to city B and returns to city A by the same route. The
speed of the vehicle during the onward and return journeys were constant at 60
km/h and 90 km/h, respectively. What is the average speed in km/h for the
entire journey?

7. A set of 4 parallel lines intersect with another set of 5 parallel lines. How many
parallelograms are formed?

8. To pass a test, a candidate needs to answer at least 2 out of 3 questions correctly. A total
of 6,30,000 candidates appeared for the test. Question A was correctly
answered by 3,30,000 candidates. Question B was answered correctly by 2,50,000
candidates. Question C was answered correctly by 2,60,000 candidates. Both questions
A and B were answered correctly by 1,00,000 candidates. Both questions B
and C were answered correctly by 90,000 candidates. Both questions A and C were
answered correctly by 80,000 candidates. If the number of students answering all questions correctly is the same as the number answering none,
how many candidates failed to clear the test?

30,000

2,70,000

3,90,000

4,20,000

9. If + ?? – 1 = 0 what is the value of + ?

10. In a detailed study of annual crow births in India, it was found that there was relatively no
growth during the period 2002 to 2004 and a sudden spike from 2004 to 2005.
In another unrelated study, it was found that the revenue from cracker sales in India
which remained fairly flat from 2002 to 2004, saw a sudden spike in 2005 before
declining again in 2006. The solid line in the graph below refers to annual sale
of crackers and the dashed line refers to the annual crow births in India. Choose the
most appropriate inference from the above data.

There is a strong correlation between crow birth and cracker sales.

Cracker usage increases crow birth rate

If cracker sale declines, crow birth will decline.

Increased birth rate of crows will cause an increase in the sale of crackers.

11. In a Colour Wheel, Red and Blue colours are

Tertiary

Complementary

Secondary

Primary

12. In a bird’s eye perspective view of a cuboid, the maximum number of vanishing points
is

13. The compressive strength of M-25 concrete is

25 kg/sqm

25 N/sqmm

250 N/sqmm

2.5 N/sqmm

14. In Critical Path Method (CPM) for time scheduling, ‘forward pass calculation’ is carried
out for determining

Late start and early finish time

Early start and early finish time

Late start and late finish time

Early start and late finish time

15. Collapse of the World Trade Center (WTC), New York, in 2001, was due to

Wind load failure

Foundation failure

Thermal performance failure of reinforcement steel in RCC

Thermal performance failure of structural steel

16. During the construction of tall buildings, the equipment used for hoisting building
materials to the upper floors is a

Goods lift

Capsule lift

Gantry crane

Tower crane

17. A Rock-cut style of architecture is represented by

Shyama Rama Temple, Bishnupur

Kailasa Temple, Ellora

Kandariya Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho

Sanchi Stupa, Sanchi

18. ‘Area based development’ and ‘Pan city development’ are part of

Smart City Mission

Digital India Mission

Swachh Bharat Mission

Atal
Innovation Mission

19. In mass transportation, LRTS stands for

Light Rail Transit System

Linear Rail Transit System

Light Rail Transportation System

Linear Rail Transportation System

20. The structural grid type shown in the figure below is a

Tartan Grid

Square Grid

Rectangular Grid

Irregular Grid

21. Assuming other variables remaining constant, the Tropical Summer Index

Increases with increase in air velocity

Decreases with increase in wet-bulb
temperature

Decreases with increase in globe temperature

Increases with increase in
vapour pressure

22. Government of India’s urban development program ‘HRIDAY’ stands for

Heritage Rejuvenation Implementation Development Aayog Yojana

Heritage Review Implementation Development Augmentation Yojana

Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana

Heritage City Improvement and Development Aawas Yojana

23. As per the Urban and Regional Development Plan Formulation and Implementation
(URDPFI) guidelines, the plan period considered in a ‘Perspective
plan’ is

1-10 years

11-15 years

20-30 years

35-45 years

24. The Hall of Nations, New Delhi, was designed by

Charles Correa

Raj Rewal

Joseph Allen Stein

A. P. Kanvinde

25. As per the National Building Code of India 2016, the minimum turning radius (in
metres) required for fire tender movement is

8.5

9.5

26. Sidi Bashir Mosque with ‘Shaking Minarets’ is located in

Ajmer

Allahabad

Ahmedabad

Amritsar

27. ‘Sight Distance’ is considered in the design of

Road intersection

Fenestration

Open kitchen

Auditorium

28. In India, the term ‘Town Planning Scheme’ refers to

Land renewal

Land rejuvenation

Land reclamation

Land readjustment

29. Bamboo is a type of

Shrub

Timber

Evergreen tree

Perennial grass

30. According to the UN, one of the components for measuring ‘inclusive growth’ is

Economic well-being

Physical infrastructure

Education

Life expectancy

31. The unit of measurement of Damp Proof Course (DPC) in building construction is

cum

sqm

32. Which of the following is NOT a Building Information Modeling software tool

Adobe Illustrator

Bentley Microstation

Autodesk Revit

Graphisoft
ARCHICAD

33. The concentric circles in a solar chart represent

Azimuth angle

Altitude angle

Horizontal shadow angle

Vertical shadow angle

34. A room of 3m × 3m × 3m has a reverberation time of 0.8 sec. Using Sabine’s method,
the total absorption in the room is _____________ sabin (up to one decimal place).

35. A 25 storeyed building has 5 lifts. The resulting waiting time is 35 sec and ‘Return Travel
Time’ is 175 sec. The number of lifts required for reducing waiting time
to 25 sec, without increasing the lift speed, is _______________

36. Match the planning documents in Group-I with their respective government schemes
in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Integrated Cluster Action Plan 1. NULM
Q. Service Level Improvement Plan 2. Make in India
R. Housing for All Plan of Action 3. RuRBAN mission
S. City Livelihood Centre Development Plan 4. PMAY 5. AMRUT

P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2

P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-3

P-3, Q-5, R-
4, S-1

37. Associate the fire safety requirements for high rise buildings in Group-I with
corresponding standards of the National Building Code of India 2016 in GroupII
Group-I Group-II
P. Minimum Refuge area 1. 12.5 sqm/person
Q. Maximum Travel distance 2. 2.0 m
R. Maximum Occupant load 3. 0.3 sqm/person
S. Minimum Stair case width 4. 12.0 ton
5. 30.0 m

P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-1

P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

P-4, Q-5, R-
1, S-3

38. Match the photometric quantities in Group-I with their respective units in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P Illuminance 1 Candela
Q Luminous Intensity 2 Candela/sqm
R Luminance 3 Lumens/sqm
S Luminous Efficacy 4 Lumens/watt
5 Lumens

P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4

P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1

P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-3

P-3, Q-1, R-
2, S-4

39. Associate the symbols in Group I with their meanings in Group II
Group II
1. Hearing Impaired
2. Emergency Lamp
3. Electical and Electronic waste disposal
4. Biohazard
5. Speech impaired

P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-2

P-1, Q-5, R-3, S-4

P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5

P-5, Q-3,
R-4, S-2

40. Match the elements in Group-I with the building components in Group-II
Group-I Group-IIP King post 1 Curtain glazing
Q Grade beam 2 Door
R Metal decking 3 Plinth
S Jamb 4 Intermediate floor
5 Truss

P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-1

P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-3

P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-
2

41. Match the iconic architectural examples in Group-I with their predominant structural
systems in Group-II Group-I
Group-II
P. S. Maria del Fiore Cathedral, Florence 1. Shell
Q. Notre Dame Cathedral, Paris 2. Suspended roof
R. Olympic Arena, Tokyo 3. Space frame
S. Bahá’i Temple, Delhi 4. Double-walled dome
5. Flying buttress

P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-4

P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1

P-5, Q-4, R-
3, S-2

42. Match the building materials in Group-I with their distinctive properties in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Cement 1. Charring
Q. Steel 2. Brittle
R. Wood 3. Evaporation
S. Glass 4. Tensile strength
5. Setting Time

P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1

P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-2

P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-2

P-4, Q-3, R-1,
S-5

43. Match the built forms in Group-I with their descriptions in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Agora 1. Custodial precincts
Q. Ziggurat 2. Place of Jewish worship
R. Mastaba 3. Built in diminishing stages of masonry with buttressed wall
S. Synagogue 4. Market place or public square5. Tomb made of mud bricks

P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2

P-3, Q-1, R-
5, S-2

44. Match the building configuration characteristics in Group-I with their seismic
consequences in Group-II Group-I
Group-II
P. Re-entrant corner 1. Soft storey
Q. Floating column 2. Stress concentration at corner
R. Irregular storey stiffness 3. Load path discontinuity
S. Gap between adjacent buildings 4. Vertical asymmetry
5. Pounding

P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5

P-3, Q-5, R-
2, S-1

45. Match the landscaping terms in Group-I with their descriptions in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Xeriscaping 1. Wide vegetated drain
Q. Drip line 2. Tree rings
R. Swale 3. Outermost circumference of a tree canopy
S. Turf block paver 4. Solution to topsoil erosion and water permeability
5. A little or no irrigation

P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-4

P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

P-5, Q-2, R-4, S-1

46. Match the planning principles in Group-I with their descriptions in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Transit oriented development 1. Four stage model of regional development
Q. Core periphery theory 2. Compact and walkable mixed use development
R. Bid rent theory 3. Geographic concentration of inter-connected institutions
S. Cluster theory 4. Change of land price with relative distance from the CBD
5. Interactive and participatory planning process

P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3

P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-3

P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-
4

47. Match the cities in Group-I with their planners in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Islamabad 1. Patrick Geddess
Q. Tel Aviv 2. C.A. DoxiadisR. Bhubaneswar 3. Lucio Costa
S. Brasilia 4. B. V. Doshi
5. O. Koenigsberger

P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3

P-2, Q-3, R-
4, S-5

48. Match the Temples in Group-I with their Dynastic period in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Brihadeshvara Temple 1. Gupta
Q. Kailasanatha Temple 2. Chalukya
R. Bhitragaon Temple 3. Lodhi
S. Lad Khan Temple 4. Chola
5. Pallava

P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2

P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-3

P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3

P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-
5

49. Match the Buildings in Group-I with their Architects in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Guggenheim Museum, Bilbao 1. Richard Rogers
Q. The Shard, London 2. Norman Foster
R. Commerz Bank, Frankfurt 3. Frank Gehry
S. Heydar Aliyev Centre, Baku 4. Renzo Piano
5 Zaha Hadid

P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-5

P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5

P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-
3

50. Match the following urban conservation themes in Group-I with their respective
descriptions in Group-II
Group-I Group-II
P. Restoration 1. Piece by piece re-assembly
Q. Reconstitution 2. Returning to previous stage
R. Reconstruction 3. Physical addition
S. Replication 4. Re-creation of vanished elements
5. Reproduction of an exact copy

P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3

P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

P-3, Q-1, R-3,
S-5

51. A Single Phase Neutral (SPN) electrical circuit has a power consumption of 330W.
Considering a voltage of 110V and power factor of 0.8, the electrical current
drawn is ___________ Amp (up to one decimal place).

52. A building with 100 sqm roof area is connected to a 72 cum rainwater collection tank. If
the rainfall is 60 mm per hour and the loss during water storage is
20%, then the time taken to fill the tank completely
is_______ hours.

53. The planning norms for provision of schools in a given town is shown in the table
below
Schools Population
norm
Land requirement
per school
Elementary
School
One per 2500
persons
0.4 hectare
Primary School One per 5000
persons
1.0 hectare
Secondary
School
One per
12500
persons
2.0 hectare
Total land area required for providing all types of schools for a population of 200,000 is
____________hectares

54. In a mixed use development on a 2.0 hectare site with 2.0 FAR, the ratio of residential
to commercial floor area is 3:2. The minimum parking (in ECS)
needed per 100 sqm of residential and commercial floor area is
1.0 and 1.25 respectively. Considering full FAR utilization, the total parking
requirement is ____________ ECS.

55. A plotted housing scheme on a site of 12 hectare has 60% saleable area. The average
unit cost of land development is INR 300 million per hectare. If the profit margin
is 20%, then the selling price of land per hectare is __________ million INR

56. A 5m × 5m × 3m room has four 230 mm thick external brick walls. Total wall fenestration
is 10 sqm. The temperature difference between indoor and outdoor is 2 degC.
The air to air transmittance values for 230 mm thick brick wall and 200 mm
thick aerated concrete block wall are 2.4 and 1.7 W/sqm degC respectively. If
the brick walls are replaced with the aerated concrete block walls, then the change in
conductive heat flow through the walls is _________W.

57. For an activity, ‘optimistic time duration’ is 4 days, ‘pessimistic time duration’ is 11 days
and ‘most-likely time duration’ is 8 days. The PERT value of time duration
is______ days (up to one decimal place).

58. In the Figure, the negative bending moment at point A of the cantilever is ________
kNm.

59. The water consumption of a high rise apartment building with 60 dwelling units having an
average household size of 5 persons is 135 lpcd. Assuming 80% of the total
use is met with recycled water supply, the daily domestic demand for the
building is _________ litres.

60. In India, for 1.0 cum of M-20 grade concrete, the number of cement bags required is
________ (up to two decimal places).

61. The sound power level of an outdoor non-directional point source is 90 dB. Considering
an atmospheric impedance of 400 rayls, the sound pressure level at 10 m
distance from the source is _______ dB.

62. The live load and dead load in a three storeyed residential building, transferred through a
single column, is 12 tons and 18 tons respectively. If the soil bearing capacity is
10 ton/sqm and the factor of safety is 1.5, the area of column footing is
_____________ sqm (up to one decimal place).

63. The indoor illumination requirement for a building is 350 Lux. If the daylight factor is 2.7
and the design sky illuminance is 9000 Lux, then the required supplementary
artificial lighting is ____________ Lux.

64. Two design options of a business building on a 10.0 hectare site are being compared
for built up area. Floor to floor height of Option A is 3.6 m and that of Option B
is 4.5 m. If the maximum allowable building height is 45 m with same ground
coverage for both options, the additional built up area achievable in Option A over
Option B is______percent.